Administer IV fluids, antiemetics, and thiamine as prescribed
Maintain accurate fluid balance chart
Provide small, frequent bland meals when oral intake resumes
Offer psychological support and reassurance
Educate the mother about signs of worsening symptoms
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
Hyperemesis gravidarum = Severe NVP + Weight loss + Dehydration
Associated with high hCG levels (e.g., twins, molar pregnancy)
Watch for ketonuria and electrolyte imbalances
Treat with IV fluids, antiemetics, and thiamine
Monitor for Wernickeβs encephalopathy
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. Which hormone is primarily associated with hyperemesis gravidarum? a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) hCG d) Prolactin Correct Answer: c) hCG Rationale: High levels of hCG are linked to nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy.
Q2. What is the most dangerous complication of untreated hyperemesis gravidarum? a) Hyperglycemia b) Wernickeβs encephalopathy c) Hypercalcemia d) UTI Correct Answer: b) Wernickeβs encephalopathy Rationale: Caused by thiamine deficiency in prolonged vomiting.
Q3. Which sign indicates dehydration in hyperemesis gravidarum? a) Bradycardia b) Increased urine output c) Dry mucous membranes d) Weight gain Correct Answer: c) Dry mucous membranes Rationale: It is a typical sign of dehydration due to fluid loss.
Q4. What should be checked before restarting oral feeding in a hyperemesis patient? a) Hemoglobin level b) Presence of ketones in urine c) Blood group d) Hematocrit Correct Answer: b) Presence of ketones in urine Rationale: Ketonuria indicates starvation; feeding should resume once ketones reduce.
Q5. What is the first-line combination therapy in mild hyperemesis gravidarum? a) Metoclopramide + Thiamine b) Promethazine + Ondansetron c) Vitamin B6 + Doxylamine d) Vitamin C + Iron Correct Answer: c) Vitamin B6 + Doxylamine Rationale: This combination is safe and effective for early NVP.
Hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) where there is abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue with the formation of grape-like vesicles in the uterus.
It is a non-viable pregnancy resulting from abnormal fertilization and is classified under benign GTD, though it has malignant potential.
β 2. Types / Classification:
πΉ Complete Mole:
No fetal parts
All chorionic villi are edematous (grape-like)
Karyotype: 46,XX (diploid, paternal origin only)
Higher risk of malignancy (choriocarcinoma)
πΉ Partial Mole:
Some fetal parts present
Some normal villi, some cystic
Karyotype: Triploid (e.g., 69,XXY)
Lower malignant potential
β 3. Causes / Risk Factors:
Maternal age <20 or >35 years
Previous molar pregnancy
Nutritional deficiency (low protein, vitamin A, folic acid)
Asian ethnicity
History of miscarriage
Use of ovulation-inducing drugs
β 4. Pathophysiology:
Abnormal fertilization (usually of an empty ovum by one or two sperm)
Leads to proliferation of trophoblastic tissue without normal embryo formation
Villi swell and form cystic masses β uterine enlargement, high hCG, and complications
β 5. Clinical Manifestations / Signs & Symptoms:
Painless vaginal bleeding in the first trimester
Excessive uterine enlargement for gestational age
High Ξ²-hCG levels
Severe nausea and vomiting (hyperemesis gravidarum)
Passage of grape-like vesicles
No fetal heart tones
Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis (tachycardia, heat intolerance) due to high hCG
May develop preeclampsia before 20 weeks (which is otherwise rare)
β 6. Diagnostic Evaluation:
Ultrasound β Snowstorm or cluster-of-grapes appearance, no fetus (complete mole)
Follow-up with serial hCG to monitor for malignancy
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. What is the most common presenting symptom of hydatidiform mole? a) Painful bleeding b) Painless vaginal bleeding c) Abdominal cramps d) Fever Correct Answer: b) Painless vaginal bleeding Rationale: It is the hallmark sign of molar pregnancy.
Q2. What is the diagnostic ultrasound finding in molar pregnancy? a) Ring of fire b) Double decidual sac c) Snowstorm pattern d) Empty sac Correct Answer: c) Snowstorm pattern Rationale: It reflects multiple hydropic villi without fetal structures.
Q3. Which hormone is significantly elevated in hydatidiform mole? a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) hCG d) FSH Correct Answer: c) hCG Rationale: Abnormal trophoblastic proliferation increases hCG massively.
Q4. What is the recommended follow-up after molar pregnancy evacuation? a) Serum estrogen levels b) Chest X-ray every month c) Weekly Ξ²-hCG levels until negative d) Repeat D&C every month Correct Answer: c) Weekly Ξ²-hCG levels until negative Rationale: hCG monitoring ensures no malignant transformation.
Q5. What is the first-line treatment for molar pregnancy? a) Hysterectomy b) Laparotomy c) Suction evacuation d) Medical abortion Correct Answer: c) Suction evacuation Rationale: Safest and most effective method for complete removal.
Ectopic pregnancy is defined as the implantation of a fertilized ovum outside the uterine cavity. The most common site is the fallopian tube (especially the ampullary region), but it can also occur in the ovary, cervix, abdomen, or cesarean scar.
It is a life-threatening emergency due to the risk of tubal rupture and hemorrhage.
β 2. Classification / Types:
πΉ Based on site:
Tubal pregnancy (most common β ~95%)
Ampullary (most frequent)
Isthmic
Fimbrial
Ovarian pregnancy
Abdominal pregnancy
Cervical pregnancy
Cornual (interstitial) pregnancy
Cesarean scar pregnancy
πΉ Based on progression:
Unruptured
Ruptured β Emergency with internal bleeding
Chronic ectopic β Resolved but with retained products
β 3. Causes / Risk Factors:
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Previous ectopic pregnancy
Tubal surgery or sterilization
Intrauterine device (IUD) usage
Assisted reproductive techniques (ART)
Congenital abnormalities of fallopian tubes
Smoking
History of infertility
β 4. Pathophysiology:
Normally, the fertilized ovum travels to the uterus for implantation.
In ectopic pregnancy, tubal damage or altered motility causes the zygote to implant outside the uterus.
The growing embryo causes stretching, inflammation, and may lead to tubal rupture, resulting in massive intra-abdominal bleeding.
β 5. Clinical Manifestations / Signs & Symptoms:
Amenorrhea (missed period)
Unilateral pelvic or abdominal pain
Vaginal spotting or bleeding
Shoulder tip pain (due to diaphragmatic irritation from blood)
Signs of shock in ruptured ectopic:
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Pallor
Fainting or collapse
Adnexal mass or tenderness on pelvic examination
β 6. Diagnostic Evaluation:
Urine pregnancy test (UPT) β Positive
Serum Ξ²-hCG β Lower than expected for gestational age; plateauing or declining
Transvaginal ultrasound (TVS) β No intrauterine gestational sac; adnexal mass may be seen
Culdocentesis β May reveal free blood in pouch of Douglas
Laparoscopy β Gold standard for diagnosis
β 7. Management:
πΉ Medical Management (for unruptured cases):
Methotrexate (single or multiple dose regimen)
Inhibits rapidly dividing trophoblastic cells
Criteria:
Hemodynamically stable
No fetal heartbeat
Ξ²-hCG < 5000 mIU/ml
Mass < 3.5 cm
No rupture or bleeding
πΉ Surgical Management (for ruptured or unstable cases):
Laparoscopy or laparotomy
Salpingostomy β Tube preserved
Salpingectomy β Tube removed
πΉ Post-treatment follow-up:
Monitor Ξ²-hCG until undetectable
Rh immunoglobulin if mother is Rh-negative
β 8. Complications:
πΈ Maternal:
Tubal rupture and internal hemorrhage
Hypovolemic shock
Infertility (due to tubal damage)
Recurrence of ectopic pregnancy
Death (if untreated)
πΈ Psychological:
Emotional distress due to loss of pregnancy
Anxiety or depression
β 9. Nurseβs Role:
Monitor vital signs and symptoms of shock
Prepare for emergency surgery if ruptured
Educate patient on signs of ectopic pregnancy for future
Provide emotional and psychological support
Monitor Ξ²-hCG levels post-treatment
Administer methotrexate carefully (if applicable)
Ensure Rh typing and give Rhogam if Rh-negative
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
Ectopic pregnancy = implantation outside uterus
Most common site = fallopian tube
Methotrexate is used for unruptured ectopic pregnancy
Shoulder tip pain = sign of internal bleeding
TVS + Ξ²-hCG used for diagnosis
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. What is the most common site for ectopic pregnancy? a) Ovary b) Cervix c) Fallopian tube d) Abdomen Correct Answer: c) Fallopian tube Rationale: Over 95% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube.
Q2. Which of the following is a classic triad of ectopic pregnancy? a) Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting b) Amenorrhea, pain, vaginal bleeding c) Hypertension, proteinuria, edema d) Fever, chills, abdominal pain Correct Answer: b) Amenorrhea, pain, vaginal bleeding Rationale: These are the hallmark features of ectopic pregnancy.
Q3. What is the first-line investigation for suspected ectopic pregnancy? a) MRI b) Laparotomy c) Transvaginal ultrasound d) X-ray abdomen Correct Answer: c) Transvaginal ultrasound Rationale: TVS helps detect absence of intrauterine pregnancy and visualize adnexal mass.
Q4. Which drug is used in the medical management of unruptured ectopic pregnancy? a) Misoprostol b) Oxytocin c) Methotrexate d) Carboprost Correct Answer: c) Methotrexate Rationale: Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist that stops trophoblastic growth.
Q5. A woman presents with ectopic pregnancy and is Rh-negative. What should be administered? a) Vitamin K b) Doxycycline c) Rh immunoglobulin d) Calcium gluconate Correct Answer: c) Rh immunoglobulin Rationale: To prevent Rh isoimmunization in future pregnancies.
Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta is implanted partially or completely over the internal cervical os, obstructing the opening of the cervix.
It is a common cause of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second half of pregnancy (typically after 20 weeks gestation).
β 2. Types / Classification:
There are four main types of placenta previa:
Total (Complete) β Placenta completely covers the internal cervical os.
Partial β Placenta partially covers the internal os.
Marginal β Placenta reaches the margin of the os but does not cover it.
Low-lying β Placenta implanted in the lower uterine segment near the os, but not touching it.
β 3. Causes / Risk Factors:
Previous cesarean section
Previous placenta previa
Multiple pregnancies
Uterine surgeries or curettage
Smoking and drug abuse
Advanced maternal age
In vitro fertilization (IVF)
β 4. Pathophysiology:
In normal pregnancy, the placenta is implanted in the upper uterine segment.
In placenta previa, due to defective endometrium or prior uterine injury, implantation occurs in the lower uterine segment.
As pregnancy advances and the lower segment stretches, the placental attachment may disrupt, leading to bleeding.
β 5. Clinical Manifestations / Signs & Symptoms:
Painless vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester
Avoid digital vaginal examination unless placenta previa is ruled out
β 7. Management:
πΉ Medical Management:
Hospitalization if bleeding occurs
Monitor fetal and maternal vital signs
Administer corticosteroids if <34 weeks (for fetal lung maturity)
Blood transfusion if required
πΉ Surgical Management:
Cesarean section is the delivery method of choice in most cases
Emergency C-section in case of uncontrolled bleeding
πΉ Nursing Management:
Monitor bleeding, vital signs, fetal heart rate
Maintain IV access and prepare for emergency delivery
Emotional support and counseling
Educate about avoiding sexual intercourse and physical exertion
β 8. Complications:
Maternal hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock
Preterm labor
Placenta accreta
Fetal hypoxia or death
Need for hysterectomy in severe cases
β 9. Nurseβs Role:
Early identification through antenatal care
Monitoring and reporting any vaginal bleeding
Educating mother on warning signs
Providing psychological support
Preparing for cesarean delivery if needed
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
Placenta previa causes painless bright red bleeding in late pregnancy.
Ultrasound is the diagnostic tool of choice.
Cesarean section is the preferred mode of delivery.
No vaginal examination should be done if previa is suspected.
Risk increases with previous C-section and multiple pregnancies.
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. What is the most common symptom of placenta previa? a) Abdominal pain b) Painless vaginal bleeding c) Hypertension d) Nausea Correct Answer: b) Painless vaginal bleeding Rationale: Placenta previa typically presents with painless, bright red bleeding in the second half of pregnancy.
Q2. Which diagnostic test confirms placenta previa? a) MRI b) Amniocentesis c) Ultrasound d) Pelvic X-ray Correct Answer: c) Ultrasound Rationale: Ultrasound, especially transvaginal, is the safest and most accurate method to diagnose placenta previa.
Q3. Which of the following is contraindicated in a patient with placenta previa? a) Ultrasound b) Pelvic examination c) Blood transfusion d) Corticosteroids Correct Answer: b) Pelvic examination Rationale: Vaginal/pelvic exams are avoided to prevent provoking bleeding.
Q4. In placenta previa, the recommended mode of delivery is usually: a) Vaginal delivery b) Instrumental delivery c) Cesarean section d) Induced labor Correct Answer: c) Cesarean section Rationale: Due to the risk of hemorrhage, C-section is the safest method for delivery.
Q5. Which is a risk factor for placenta previa? a) Teenage pregnancy b) Primigravida c) Previous cesarean section d) Hyperemesis gravidarum Correct Answer: c) Previous cesarean section Rationale: Previous uterine surgery increases the risk due to possible scar tissue altering implantation site.
Abruptio placentae is a condition in which the normally implanted placenta separates prematurely from the uterine wall after the 20th week of gestation and before the birth of the fetus.
It is a serious obstetric emergency and a leading cause of maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality.
β 2. Types / Classification:
Revealed (External) β Blood escapes through the cervix and is visible externally.
Concealed (Internal) β Blood is trapped behind the placenta, with no visible vaginal bleeding.
Mixed (Combined) β Features of both revealed and concealed types.
Non-stress test (NST) and fetal biophysical profile
Monitor maternal and fetal vital signs
β 7. Management:
πΉ Medical Management:
Hospitalization
Stabilize mother: IV fluids, oxygen, blood transfusions if needed
Monitor vital signs, fetal well-being
Corticosteroids if preterm (<34 weeks)
πΉ Surgical Management:
Emergency Cesarean section in severe cases or fetal distress
Vaginal delivery may be considered if fetal demise has occurred and mother is stable
πΉ Nursing Management:
Continuous monitoring of maternal and fetal status
IV access and blood crossmatching
Monitor for signs of shock, DIC
Provide emotional support and reassurance
β 8. Complications:
πΈ Maternal:
Hypovolemic shock
DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
Postpartum hemorrhage
Renal failure
Death
πΈ Fetal:
Premature birth
Hypoxia
Stillbirth
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
β 9. Nurseβs Role:
Early identification and reporting of warning signs
Do not perform vaginal exam in undiagnosed bleeding
Monitor uterine tone and fundal height
Educate the mother about rest and warning signs in future pregnancies
Ensure availability of emergency supplies and consent for surgery
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
Abruptio placentae presents with painful, dark red bleeding.
Uterine tenderness and rigidity are hallmark features.
A major cause of DIC and maternal shock.
Ultrasound is not always reliable; clinical signs are key.
Immediate C-section may be required for fetal or maternal distress.
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. What is the hallmark symptom of abruptio placentae? a) Painless bright red bleeding b) Painful dark red bleeding c) Foul-smelling discharge d) Sudden rupture of membranes Correct Answer: b) Painful dark red bleeding Rationale: Abruptio placenta is characterized by painful vaginal bleeding due to placental detachment.
Q2. Which of the following is a known risk factor for abruptio placentae? a) Hypothyroidism b) Multiparity c) Iron deficiency d) Anemia Correct Answer: b) Multiparity Rationale: Multiparity is a significant risk factor due to repeated uterine stretching and possible vascular changes.
Q3. Which of the following types of abruptio placenta has no visible bleeding? a) Revealed b) Concealed c) Mixed d) Marginal Correct Answer: b) Concealed Rationale: In concealed type, blood accumulates behind the placenta and does not exit vaginally.
Q4. Which of the following is an immediate complication of abruptio placentae? a) Pre-eclampsia b) Eclampsia c) DIC d) Chorioamnionitis Correct Answer: c) DIC Rationale: Due to release of thromboplastin from damaged placental tissue, DIC is a serious complication.
Q5. What is the preferred mode of delivery in case of severe abruptio placentae with fetal distress? a) Normal vaginal delivery b) Forceps delivery c) Cesarean section d) Vacuum extraction Correct Answer: c) Cesarean section Rationale: Emergency cesarean is indicated when maternal or fetal life is at risk.
Abortion is defined as the termination of pregnancy before the fetus reaches viability, which is usually considered before 20 weeks of gestation or when the fetal weight is less than 500 grams.
It may occur spontaneously (miscarriage) or be induced (planned or therapeutic).
β 2. Types / Classification:
πΉ A. Spontaneous Abortion (Miscarriage):
Threatened Abortion β Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os and viable fetus.
Inevitable Abortion β Bleeding with open cervix, abortion cannot be prevented.
Incomplete Abortion β Part of the products of conception are expelled, rest retained.
Complete Abortion β All products of conception are expelled.
Missed Abortion β Fetus dies but is retained in uterus without symptoms.
Septic Abortion β Infection is present in the uterus after abortion.
Recurrent Abortion β Three or more consecutive spontaneous abortions.
πΉ B. Induced Abortion:
Medical Abortion β Use of drugs like mifepristone + misoprostol.
Surgical Abortion β Manual vacuum aspiration, dilation and curettage (D&C).
Therapeutic Abortion β Done for maternal/fetal medical indications.
Elective Abortion β Done voluntarily, allowed legally under conditions.
β 3. Causes / Risk Factors:
Chromosomal abnormalities (most common in first trimester)
Blood group typing β To check Rh factor and prevent isoimmunization
β 7. Management:
πΉ For Threatened Abortion:
Bed rest, avoidance of physical/sexual activity
Progesterone supplementation (if indicated)
πΉ For Inevitable/Incomplete Abortion:
Hospitalization
Evacuation of uterus (D&C, suction curettage)
Antibiotics if infection suspected
πΉ For Complete Abortion:
Observation and follow-up
No intervention usually needed
πΉ For Missed Abortion:
Medical induction or surgical evacuation
πΉ For Induced Abortion:
As per Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act and guidelines
β 8. Complications:
Hemorrhage
Infection (sepsis)
Uterine perforation
Retained products of conception
Infertility (rare)
Psychological impact (grief, depression)
β 9. Nurseβs Role:
Provide emotional support and counseling
Monitor vital signs and bleeding
Prepare for surgical/medical management
Educate regarding contraception and future pregnancy planning
Ensure aseptic technique and post-procedure care
Administer Rho(D) immunoglobulin if Rh-negative mother
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
Abortion is termination of pregnancy before 20 weeks or 500 g.
Mifepristone + Misoprostol is the preferred drug combo for medical abortion.
Threatened abortion has closed cervix with viable fetus.
Missed abortion is silent fetal death with retained products.
Septic abortion requires aggressive antibiotics and possible surgical intervention.
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. What is the most common cause of spontaneous abortion in the first trimester? a) Infection b) Hormonal imbalance c) Chromosomal abnormalities d) Trauma Correct Answer: c) Chromosomal abnormalities Rationale: Genetic defects account for most early miscarriages.
Q2. Which of the following indicates a missed abortion? a) Open cervix and active bleeding b) Painful uterine contractions c) Retained dead fetus with no symptoms d) Passage of all products of conception Correct Answer: c) Retained dead fetus with no symptoms Rationale: Missed abortion involves fetal death with no immediate expulsion or symptoms.
Q3. What is the legal limit for MTP in India as per latest amendment (2021)? a) 12 weeks b) 20 weeks c) 24 weeks d) 28 weeks Correct Answer: c) 24 weeks Rationale: As per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021, the upper gestational limit is 24 weeks for special categories.
Q4. Which type of abortion presents with foul-smelling discharge and fever? a) Missed abortion b) Threatened abortion c) Septic abortion d) Complete abortion Correct Answer: c) Septic abortion Rationale: Septic abortion involves uterine infection.
Q5. Which hormone is essential for pregnancy maintenance and its deficiency leads to abortion? a) Estrogen b) Oxytocin c) Progesterone d) Prolactin Correct Answer: c) Progesterone Rationale: Progesterone stabilizes the endometrium and supports pregnancy.
Administer and monitor magnesium sulfate (check for toxicity)
Maintain seizure precautions
Educate the patient on warning signs
Prepare for delivery if indicated
Emotional support and health teaching
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
Pre-eclampsia is diagnosed after 20 weeks gestation.
Classic triad: hypertension, proteinuria, and edema.
Magnesium sulfate is used for seizure prevention.
Delivery of the fetus and placenta is the only definitive treatment.
HELLP syndrome is a severe variant of pre-eclampsia.
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. Which of the following is NOT a feature of pre-eclampsia? a) Hypertension b) Proteinuria c) Seizures d) Edema Correct Answer: c) Seizures Rationale: Seizures are seen in eclampsia, not pre-eclampsia.
Q2. What is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in pre-eclampsia? a) Diazepam b) Phenytoin c) Magnesium sulfate d) Lorazepam Correct Answer: c) Magnesium sulfate Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the standard drug to prevent eclampsia.
Q3. HELLP syndrome includes all EXCEPT: a) Hemolysis b) Elevated liver enzymes c) Low platelet count d) High WBC count Correct Answer: d) High WBC count Rationale: WBC count is not a component of HELLP syndrome.
Q4. Which of the following antihypertensives is commonly used in severe pre-eclampsia? a) Atenolol b) Methyldopa c) Labetalol d) Propranolol Correct Answer: c) Labetalol Rationale: Labetalol is preferred in pregnancy for rapid BP control.
Q5. The definitive treatment for pre-eclampsia is: a) Rest b) Diuretics c) Antihypertensives d) Delivery Correct Answer: d) Delivery Rationale: Removal of the placenta cures the condition.
Eclampsia is a severe complication of pregnancy characterized by the onset of tonic-clonic seizures (convulsions) in a woman with pre-eclampsia, and without any other identifiable cause of seizures.
It is a life-threatening obstetric emergency and a major cause of maternal and fetal mortality.
β 2. Classification / Types:
Antepartum eclampsia β Seizures occur before the onset of labor.
Intrapartum eclampsia β Seizures occur during labor.
Postpartum eclampsia β Seizures occur within 48 hours after delivery.
β 3. Causes / Risk Factors:
Pre-eclampsia (underlying)
Primigravida
Multiple pregnancy (twins, triplets)
Teenage or elderly pregnancy
Chronic hypertension
Renal disease
Obesity
Poor antenatal care
History of eclampsia in previous pregnancy
β 4. Pathophysiology:
Severe endothelial dysfunction and vasospasm due to pre-eclampsia
Leads to cerebral edema, ischemia, and increased intracranial pressure
Sudden changes in cerebral perfusion trigger generalized seizures
β 5. Clinical Manifestations / Signs & Symptoms:
Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
Loss of consciousness
Foaming at mouth, tongue biting
Cyanosis, muscle rigidity, jerky movements
Hypertension (β₯160/110 mmHg)
Proteinuria
Severe headache
Blurred vision or photophobia
Epigastric pain (sign of impending seizure)
Decreased urine output
β 6. Diagnostic Evaluation:
Clinical diagnosis based on seizures in a pre-eclamptic woman
Urinalysis β proteinuria
BP measurement
Serum creatinine, LFTs, CBC β to assess organ function
CT/MRI Brain β only if seizures persist despite treatment (to rule out other causes)
Fetal assessment β Non-stress test (NST), ultrasound
β 7. Management:
πΉ Emergency Management of Seizure:
Place patient in left lateral position
Ensure airway patency, suction if needed
Administer oxygen
Prevent injury: padded side rails, remove sharp objects
πΉ Drug Therapy:
Magnesium sulfate (MgSOβ) β drug of choice for preventing and controlling seizures
Definitive treatment is delivery of the baby and placenta
Vaginal delivery preferred if stable and cervix favorable
Cesarean section if maternal or fetal compromise exists
β 8. Complications:
πΈ Maternal:
Cerebral hemorrhage
Pulmonary edema
Acute renal failure
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
HELLP syndrome
Maternal death
πΈ Fetal:
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
Fetal hypoxia
Preterm birth
Intrauterine fetal death (IUFD)
β 9. Nurseβs Role:
Monitor vital signs, especially BP and respiratory rate
Administer and monitor MgSOβ therapy
Monitor urine output and signs of Mg toxicity
Keep calcium gluconate at bedside
Maintain seizure precautions
Emotional support to mother and family
Assist in safe delivery planning
Health education for future pregnancy care
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
Eclampsia = Pre-eclampsia + Seizures
Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure control
Calcium gluconate is the antidote for MgSOβ toxicity
Occurs after 20 weeks, usually in primigravida
Delivery is the definitive treatment
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. Which drug is used for preventing seizures in eclampsia? a) Diazepam b) Phenytoin c) Magnesium sulfate d) Carbamazepine Correct Answer: c) Magnesium sulfate Rationale: MgSOβ is the standard drug for seizure prevention and control in eclampsia.
Q2. Which of the following is an early warning sign of impending eclampsia? a) Polyuria b) Photophobia and headache c) Vaginal bleeding d) Constipation Correct Answer: b) Photophobia and headache Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances are signs of cerebral involvement.
Q3. What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity? a) Atropine b) Naloxone c) Calcium gluconate d) Flumazenil Correct Answer: c) Calcium gluconate Rationale: It is given IV to reverse magnesium toxicity symptoms.
Q4. What is the position of choice for an eclamptic woman during seizure? a) Supine b) Prone c) Left lateral d) Right lateral Correct Answer: c) Left lateral Rationale: This position improves uteroplacental blood flow and prevents aspiration.
Q5. Which of the following is NOT a complication of eclampsia? a) Cerebral hemorrhage b) Retinal detachment c) HELLP syndrome d) Pulmonary edema Correct Answer: b) Retinal detachment Rationale: Retinal detachment is not commonly associated with eclampsia; other three are well-known complications.
ππ¬ Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)
π Highly Important for GNM/BSc Nursing, NHM, AIIMS, NORCET, GPSC & Midwifery/Obstetric Nursing Exams
β 1. Introduction / Definition:
Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) is a condition characterized by glucose intolerance with onset or first recognition during pregnancy (usually in the 2nd or 3rd trimester).
βGDM is defined as carbohydrate intolerance of variable severity with onset or first recognition during pregnancy.β
β 2. Classification:
A1 GDM: Controlled by diet and exercise
A2 GDM: Requires insulin or oral hypoglycemic agents
β 3. Causes / Risk Factors:
Hormonal changes (placental hormones cause insulin resistance)
Obesity or excessive weight gain
Age > 25 years
Family history of diabetes
History of GDM in previous pregnancy
PCOS (Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome)
Previous macrosomic baby (>4 kg)
Ethnic groups with high diabetes prevalence (e.g., South Asians)
Risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) later in life
β 8. Fetal Complications:
Macrosomia (birth weight >4 kg)
Shoulder dystocia
Neonatal hypoglycemia
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
Stillbirth if unmanaged
Increased risk of childhood obesity and diabetes
β 9. Management:
π’ A. Lifestyle Modifications:
Medical Nutrition Therapy (MNT): Low glycemic diet
Moderate exercise: Walking, yoga
Monitor blood glucose levels regularly
π’ B. Pharmacologic:
Insulin therapy (safest during pregnancy)
Metformin or Glibenclamide (oral agents, used selectively)
π’ C. Monitoring:
Fetal growth by USG
NST / BPP for fetal well-being
Weekly glucose charting
Plan delivery at 38β40 weeks
β 10. Nursing Responsibilities:
Educate on diet, exercise, and self-monitoring of blood glucose
Assist in insulin administration
Monitor for hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia
Prepare for early delivery if complications arise
Postpartum follow-up for diabetes testing at 6β12 weeks
β 11. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
GDM is first detected in pregnancy, not before
Placental hormones cause insulin resistance
Macrosomia and hypoglycemia are key fetal complications
DIPSI 75g test is used in India
GDM increases risk of type 2 DM later in life
β 12. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. GDM usually develops during which trimester? a) First b) Early second β c) Late second or third d) Postpartum
Q2. Most common fetal complication of GDM is: a) Anencephaly β b) Macrosomia c) Oligohydramnios d) Neural tube defect
Q3. The test used to screen GDM in India is: a) HbA1c β b) DIPSI 75g OGTT c) Glucagon stimulation test d) GCT with 100g
Q4. A blood glucose reading of 2-hour post 75g glucose >140 mg/dL indicates: β a) GDM b) Normal c) Anemia d) Hypertension
Q5. Best treatment option for uncontrolled GDM is: a) Multivitamins b) Oral contraceptives β c) Insulin therapy d) Corticosteroids
π PRETERM LABOR
(Highly Important for GNM, BSc Nursing, Midwifery, NHM, AIIMS, NORCET, GPSC & Staff Nurse Exams)
β 1. Introduction / Definition:
Preterm labor is defined as the onset of regular uterine contractions resulting in cervical changes (dilation and/or effacement) before 37 completed weeks of gestation.
It is a major cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality, especially when it occurs before 34 weeks.
Inflammation or infection triggers release of prostaglandins.
Leads to uterine contractions and cervical changes.
May also be caused by mechanical factors like uterine stretch or hormonal changes that stimulate early labor.
β 5. Clinical Manifestations / Signs & Symptoms:
Regular uterine contractions (every 10 minutes or less)
Low backache or pelvic pressure
Menstrual-like cramping
Vaginal spotting or watery discharge
Cervical dilation and/or effacement
Shortened cervix on transvaginal ultrasound
β 6. Diagnostic Evaluation:
Speculum and digital pelvic exam β assess cervical status
Cardiotocography (CTG) β monitor uterine contractions and fetal heart rate
Transvaginal ultrasound β cervical length <2.5 cm is a risk
Fetal fibronectin (fFN) test β positive result predicts risk of preterm birth
Urinalysis and culture β rule out infection
CBC, CRP β to check for infection/inflammation
β 7. Management:
πΉ A. General Management:
Hospitalization and monitoring
Bed rest (controversial but often advised)
Hydration β may reduce contractions
πΉ B. Tocolytic Therapy (to delay labor temporarily):
Used to delay delivery for 48 hours to allow corticosteroids to act:
Nifedipine (calcium channel blocker)
Indomethacin (NSAID, before 32 weeks)
Magnesium sulfate (also for neuroprotection)
Terbutaline / Ritodrine (Ξ²-mimetics, less common now)
πΉ C. Corticosteroids (for fetal lung maturity):
Betamethasone 12 mg IM Γ 2 doses 24 hours apart OR
Dexamethasone 6 mg IM Γ 4 doses 12 hours apart Given if gestation is between 24β34 weeks.
πΉ D. Antibiotics (if infection present):
For UTI or chorioamnionitis
Prophylaxis for Group B Streptococcus if indicated
πΉ E. Magnesium Sulfate:
For neuroprotection of fetus if delivery is imminent before 32 weeks
β 8. Complications:
πΈ Maternal:
Side effects of tocolytics (e.g., hypotension, tachycardia)
Infection (chorioamnionitis)
Anxiety, stress
πΈ Fetal / Neonatal:
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
Sepsis
Cerebral palsy
Low birth weight and prematurity-related complications
β 9. Nurseβs Role:
Monitor uterine contractions and fetal heart rate
Administer medications: tocolytics, steroids, antibiotics
Educate the mother about signs of labor
Provide emotional support
Maintain bed rest and hydration protocols
Prepare for neonatal resuscitation if preterm delivery occurs
Teach danger signs to report (leaking, bleeding, contractions)
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
Preterm labor = Onset of labor before 37 weeks
Nifedipine is the most commonly used tocolytic
Betamethasone accelerates fetal lung maturity
fFN test is useful for predicting preterm birth risk
Magnesium sulfate protects against cerebral palsy
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. What is the most common cause of preterm labor? a) Diabetes b) UTI c) Infections (e.g., chorioamnionitis) d) Hypertension Correct Answer: c) Infections (e.g., chorioamnionitis) Rationale: Intrauterine infections are a leading cause of preterm labor.
Q2. Which drug is used for fetal lung maturity in preterm labor? a) Nifedipine b) Betamethasone c) Magnesium sulfate d) Oxytocin Correct Answer: b) Betamethasone Rationale: Corticosteroids promote surfactant production in fetal lungs.
Q3. Which tocolytic is most commonly used for preterm labor? a) Terbutaline b) Indomethacin c) Nifedipine d) Ritodrine Correct Answer: c) Nifedipine Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker widely used for tocolysis.
Q4. Which test predicts risk of preterm labor? a) Amniocentesis b) fFN test c) Pap smear d) Karyotyping Correct Answer: b) fFN test Rationale: Fetal fibronectin is a biomarker for risk of preterm birth.
Q5. What is the primary goal of tocolytic therapy? a) Induce labor b) Cure preterm labor c) Delay delivery for corticosteroids d) Improve cervical dilation Correct Answer: c) Delay delivery for corticosteroids Rationale: Tocolytics help buy time for steroid benefit in fetal lung maturity.
Post maturity or post-term pregnancy is defined as a pregnancy that extends beyond 42 completed weeks (β₯294 days) from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP).
It increases the risk of maternal and fetal complications due to aging of the placenta and decreased amniotic fluid.
Close fetal surveillance (NST and BPP every 2β3 days)
Maternal kick count monitoring
πΉ Active Management:
Induction of labor (usually between 41β42 weeks)
Use of prostaglandins or oxytocin
Artificial rupture of membranes (AROM) if cervix is favorable
Cesarean section if induction fails or fetal distress occurs
β 8. Complications:
πΈ Maternal:
Prolonged labor
Increased chance of operative delivery
Postpartum hemorrhage
Perineal trauma
πΈ Fetal / Neonatal:
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
Oligohydramnios
Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
Hypoxia and stillbirth
Macrosomia (large baby)
Shoulder dystocia
Neonatal convulsions or death
β 9. Nurseβs Role:
Ensure accurate gestational age assessment
Educate about kick count monitoring
Assist in NST and BPP testing
Prepare for labor induction if indicated
Monitor for signs of fetal distress
Provide psychological support to the mother
Assist during delivery and neonatal resuscitation if needed
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
Post-term pregnancy = >42 weeks
Oligohydramnios and meconium aspiration are common risks
Biophysical profile (BPP) is used for monitoring
Labor is usually induced between 41β42 weeks
Macrosomia and shoulder dystocia are delivery complications
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. A pregnancy is considered post-term after how many completed weeks? a) 38 weeks b) 40 weeks c) 42 weeks d) 44 weeks Correct Answer: c) 42 weeks Rationale: Post-maturity is defined as gestation beyond 42 completed weeks.
Q2. The most common complication of post-maturity for the fetus is: a) Polyhydramnios b) Meconium aspiration c) Placenta previa d) Eclampsia Correct Answer: b) Meconium aspiration Rationale: Aging placenta leads to fetal distress and meconium-stained fluid.
Q3. Which of the following is used to monitor fetal well-being in post-term pregnancy? a) CT scan b) Pap smear c) Biophysical profile d) Amniocentesis Correct Answer: c) Biophysical profile Rationale: BPP is a composite test that assesses fetal status.
Q4. Which of the following is a typical physical feature of a post-mature newborn? a) Lanugo present b) Vernix caseosa c) Peeling, dry skin d) Excessive subcutaneous fat Correct Answer: c) Peeling, dry skin Rationale: Post-mature infants show signs of aging like dry skin and overgrown nails.
Q5. The preferred time to induce labor in a post-dated pregnancy is: a) After 38 weeks b) At 40 weeks c) Between 41β42 weeks d) After 43 weeks Correct Answer: c) Between 41β42 weeks Rationale: To prevent post-maturity complications, induction is considered around 41β42 weeks.
π MULTIPLE PREGNANCY
(Highly Important for GNM, BSc Nursing, Midwifery, AIIMS, NHM, NORCET, GPSC & Staff Nurse Exams)
β 1. Introduction / Definition
Multiple pregnancy is a condition in which two or more fetuses develop simultaneously in the uterus. It can be twins, triplets, quadruplets, etc., and may result from natural conception or assisted reproductive techniques (ART).
β 2. Types of Multiple Pregnancy
Type
Definition
Dizygotic (Fraternal) Twins
Two ova fertilized by two sperms (different placenta & membranes)
Monozygotic (Identical) Twins
One ovum fertilized by one sperm, which splits into two embryos
Family history of twins (especially maternal side)
Advanced maternal age (>35 years)
Assisted Reproductive Technology (IVF, IUI)
High parity (multiple previous pregnancies)
Use of ovulation induction drugs (Clomiphene, Letrozole)
β 5. Signs & Symptoms
Rapid increase in uterine size
Fundal height larger than gestational age
Excessive weight gain
Severe morning sickness
Increased fetal parts felt on palpation
Two or more fetal heart tones detected
β 6. Diagnostic Evaluation
Investigation
Finding
Ultrasound
Confirms number of fetuses, chorionicity
Fundal Height
Higher than expected for gestational age
Serum hCG & AFP
Higher than normal (due to multiple placentas)
NST / BPP / Doppler
For fetal monitoring in late pregnancy
β 7. Complications of Multiple Pregnancy
πΉ Maternal Complications
Anemia
Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)
Gestational diabetes
Polyhydramnios
Preterm labor
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)
πΉ Fetal Complications
Prematurity
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) in monochorionic twins
Congenital anomalies
Cord entanglement (in Mo-Mo twins)
Intrauterine death of one fetus
β 8. Management of Multiple Pregnancy
πΈ Antenatal Care
Early confirmation and chorionicity determination via USG
Frequent antenatal check-ups (every 2 weeks after 24 weeks)
Monitor for PIH, anemia, preterm signs
Iron, folic acid, calcium supplementation
Weight gain: 15β20 kg (for twins)
πΈ Intrapartum Care
Delivery in well-equipped hospital with NICU
Vaginal delivery may be possible if:
First twin is cephalic
No complications
Cesarean if:
Malpresentation
Mo-Mo twins
Fetal distress or discordant growth
πΈ Postpartum Care
Monitor for PPH and anemia
Breastfeeding support
Neonatal care for preterm or low birth weight babies
β 9. Nursing Responsibilities
Educate the mother on warning signs (preterm pain, bleeding)
Monitor fundal height, fetal heart rates, and vital signs
Provide psychological support for high-risk status
Prepare for emergency delivery or cesarean
Assist in NICU transfer and neonatal care
Support breastfeeding and nutritional guidance
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Revision
Dizygotic twins = Two ova, two sperms, always Di-Di
Monozygotic twins = One ovum splits into two
Mo-Mo twins have highest risk (cord entanglement)
Twin pregnancy = higher risk of preterm labor & PPH
Ultrasound is the investigation of choice for confirmation
Twin-to-Twin Transfusion Syndrome occurs only in monochorionic twins
β 11. Top 5 MCQs for Practice
1. Which of the following is a risk factor for multiple pregnancy? a) Low maternal age b) Smoking c) Use of Clomiphene citrate d) Male infertility Correct Answer: c) Use of Clomiphene citrate Rationale: Ovulation-inducing agents increase the chances of multiple ovulations.
2. Monozygotic twins result from: a) Fertilization of two separate ova b) Fertilization of one ovum that splits c) Two sperms fertilizing two ova d) Two sperms fertilizing one ovum Correct Answer: b) Fertilization of one ovum that splits Rationale: Monozygotic twins are genetically identical.
3. Twin-to-Twin Transfusion Syndrome occurs in: a) Dichorionic twins b) Monoamniotic twins only c) Monochorionic twins d) Any twin pregnancy Correct Answer: c) Monochorionic twins Rationale: TTTS involves abnormal vascular connections within a shared placenta.
4. Which of the following complications is common in multiple pregnancy? a) Hyperthyroidism b) Polyhydramnios c) Hypoglycemia d) Oligohydramnios Correct Answer: b) Polyhydramnios Rationale: Multiple fetuses increase amniotic fluid volume.
5. Which is the best investigation to confirm multiple pregnancy and chorionicity? a) X-ray b) Pelvic exam c) Doppler study d) Ultrasonography Correct Answer: d) Ultrasonography Rationale: USG is safe and accurate to confirm number of fetuses and placentas.
π TWIN-TO-TWIN TRANSFUSION SYNDROME (TTTS)
(Highly Important for GNM, BSc Nursing, Midwifery, AIIMS, NHM, NORCET, GPSC & Staff Nurse Exams)
β 1. Introduction / Definition
Twin-to-Twin Transfusion Syndrome (TTTS) is a serious complication that occurs only in monochorionic (single placenta) twin pregnancies, where abnormal vascular connections between the twins cause unequal blood flow.
π§ One twin becomes the donor, and the other becomes the recipient, leading to volume imbalance and serious fetal complications.
β 2. Cause / Pathophysiology
In monochorionic twins, the shared placenta has anastomoses (vascular connections).
When these become unbalanced, blood flows from one twin (donor) to the other (recipient) through arteriovenous shunts.
The donor twin becomes anemic and growth-restricted, while the recipient twin develops volume overload, polyhydramnios, and cardiac strain.
β 3. Chorionicity Requirement
Only occurs in: πΉ Monochorionic-Diamniotic (Mo-Di) twins πΉ Rarely in Monochorionic-Monoamniotic (Mo-Mo) twins
Assist in frequent ultrasounds and fetal Doppler studies
Educate and emotionally support the mother regarding condition and risks
Prepare the mother for possible fetal interventions or early delivery
Ensure availability of neonatal resuscitation team during birth
Document all findings, USG results, fetal assessments carefully
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Revision
TTTS occurs only in monochorionic twin pregnancies
It results from unbalanced blood flow through placental anastomoses
Laser therapy is the treatment of choice for severe TTTS
Donor twin has oligohydramnios and anemia
Recipient twin has polyhydramnios and cardiac overload
Quintero staging is used to grade TTTS severity
β 11. Top 5 MCQs for Practice
1. TTTS occurs in which type of twin pregnancy? a) Dichorionic diamniotic b) Monochorionic diamniotic c) Dizygotic d) All twin types Correct Answer: b) Monochorionic diamniotic Rationale: Only monochorionic twins share a placenta, allowing abnormal vascular connections.
2. What is the most effective treatment for severe TTTS? a) Amniocentesis b) Betamethasone c) Laser photocoagulation d) Blood transfusion Correct Answer: c) Laser photocoagulation Rationale: This seals abnormal placental vessels and corrects blood flow imbalance.
3. In TTTS, which of the following is seen in the donor twin? a) Polyhydramnios b) Cardiomegaly c) Oligohydramnios d) Hypertension Correct Answer: c) Oligohydramnios Rationale: The donor twin loses fluid and blood, leading to reduced urine output and less amniotic fluid.
4. Which TTTS stage is characterized by absent bladder in donor twin? a) Stage I b) Stage II c) Stage III d) Stage IV Correct Answer: b) Stage II Rationale: Stage II involves absent bladder in the donor twin.
5. What is a common complication for the recipient twin in TTTS? a) IUGR b) Hypovolemia c) Heart failure d) Anemia Correct Answer: c) Heart failure Rationale: The recipient twin receives excess blood volume, overloading the heart.
Prepare the mother and family for seeing or holding the baby
Encourage grieving and memory making (photos, footprints)
Assist in investigations to determine cause
Educate about follow-up care, contraception, and future pregnancy planning
β 10. Golden One-Liners for Quick Revision:
IUFD = fetal death after 20 weeks but before labor
Ultrasound is the gold standard for confirmation
Most common symptom: absent fetal movements
Risk of DIC increases if fetus is retained >4 weeks
Preferred mode of delivery: induction of labor
β 11. MCQs for Practice:
Q1. Intrauterine fetal death is defined as fetal death after: a) 12 weeks b) 16 weeks c) 20 weeks d) 37 weeks Correct Answer: c) 20 weeks Rationale: IUFD is defined as fetal death occurring after 20 weeks of gestation.
Q2. The most reliable method to confirm IUFD is: a) Absence of fetal movement b) X-ray c) Ultrasound d) CT scan Correct Answer: c) Ultrasound Rationale: Ultrasound showing absent fetal cardiac activity is diagnostic.
Q3. What is the most dangerous maternal complication of IUFD? a) Preeclampsia b) Diabetes c) DIC d) UTI Correct Answer: c) DIC Rationale: Retained dead fetus may release thromboplastin, triggering DIC.
Q4. What emotional support is essential for a mother after IUFD? a) Distraction therapy b) Denial of loss c) Bereavement counseling d) Immediate discharge Correct Answer: c) Bereavement counseling Rationale: Psychological support and counseling are vital for coping.
Q5. What is the typical delivery method for IUFD at term? a) Elective C-section b) Emergency hysterectomy c) Induction of labor d) Vacuum extraction Correct Answer: c) Induction of labor Rationale: Induction is preferred unless C-section is obstetrically necessary.